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| Thread ID: 83262 | 2007-09-25 15:00:00 | Awarding of Legal Costs against the State | KenESmith (6287) | PC World Chat |
| Post ID | Timestamp | Content | User | ||
| 594956 | 2007-09-26 04:48:00 | Tedheath you've used some deliberately provocative language in your posts. I don't like what you're insinuating here and clearly neither do some of our other members. You have until 5pm to edit your posts accordingly or I'll delete them outright. | Scott Bartley (836) | ||
| 594957 | 2007-09-26 07:16:00 | Since when is using a German word provocative? I hope if anyone else uses a german word here they get pulled up tedheath |
tedheath (537) | ||
| 594958 | 2007-09-26 10:14:00 | Originally posted by KenESmith> If a private individual brings a civil case that is lost,(ie not established on the balance of probabilities, which is a much lower level of proof that beyond reasonable doubt), then they will not only have to pay their own costs but also the other parties costs and court costs. Why cannot the State be held accountable to an equal degree where they prosecute a citizen. Originally posted by Deane F> This is a compelling argument. I'd say that the reason it does not obtain is that it would cost far too much. But what if you employ a top lawyer and you still lose in court - and go to jail. Should you still have to pay your lawyer? The reimbursement of costs should only apply where the Government's case is dismissed or the defendant is acquitted - yes it would cost the government and this would be passed on to the taxpayer - it is not legal aid, merely restoring the defendants financial position to what previously existed before it was necessary to defend himself from a government prosecution. If you lose in court you pick up your costs, and note it is not unknown for judges to award costs against defendants if they so see fit. |
KenESmith (6287) | ||
| 594959 | 2007-09-26 10:38:00 | Since when is using a German word provocative? I hope if anyone else uses a german word here they get pulled up tedheath Don't make me laugh. Of all the German words you could use and never have in posts, you choose the German for Jew? There is only one reason someone would use just that one, itty bitty German word and no others, and that is to invoke the association that anyone educated in 20th Century history will have for the word "Juden". If you're so hot on free speech, have the balls to defend or at least explain yours instead of hiding behind lame excuses. Or is it that you realise you can't defend it? Or is yours the kind of free speech that likes to be spoken beneath a white hood? |
Biggles (121) | ||
| 594960 | 2007-09-27 01:38:00 | Since when is using a German word provocative? I hope if anyone else uses a german word here they get pulled up tedheathYou have had warnings, you have been banned for a period. Despite this you continue with comments that offend many people. This is your final warning. If you continue with these offensive comments the next such post you make will be your last. Permanently. |
Jen (38) | ||
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